80 MCQs on Solutions, Suspensions, and Colloids For Grade IX Board Exams and Entry Tests

Quiz yourself on basic concepts of Solutions for getting high marks in exams and entrance tests

1. What is a Solution?

A) A homogenepus mixture of two or more substances
B) A mixture of only one substance
C) A solid mixture
D) A liquid mixture

2. Which of the following best describes a Solution?

A) A heterogeneous mixture
B) A mixture with visible components
C) A mixture with uniform distribution
D) A mixture with a fixed composition

3. What is the physical basis for the combination of components in a Solution?

A) Chemical reaction
B) Electrostatic attraction
C) Magnetic force
D) Physical mixing

4. Can dissolved substances in a Solution be seen through a high-power resolving microscope?

A) Yes
B) No

5. What type of composition do Solutions have?

A) Fixed composition
B) High composition
C) Heterogeneous composition
D) Variable composition

6. What are the two components of a Solution?

A) Solutes and solvents
B) Acids and bases
C) Liquids and gases
D) Metals and nonmetals

7. What is another name for Solutions that have two components?

A) Ternary Solutions
B) Binary Solutions
C) Complex Solutions
D) Simple Solutions

8. Which of the following is an example of a Solution?

A) Sugar and sand mixture
B) Oil and water mixture
C) Salt dissolved in water
D) Vinegar and baking soda mixture

9. Which of the following is an example of a gas in gas solution?

A) Smoke
B) Carbon particles
C) Air
D) Vinegar

10. Which of the following is an example of a liquid in gas solution?

A) Sea water
B) Fog
C) Oxygen gas
D) Dental amalgam

11. What type of solution is vinegar?

A) Gas in liquid
B) Liquid in liquid
C) Solid in liquid
D) Gas in solid

12. Which of the following is an example of a liquid in solid solution?

A) Hydrogen in palladium
B) Dental amalgam
C) Sea water
D) Brass (Alloy)

13. What is an example of a solid in solid solution?

A) Hydrogen in palladium
B) HCl solution
C) Vinegar
D) Carbon particles

14. What is the state of the solvent in a gas in solid solution?

A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Plasma

15. What is an aqueous solution?

A. A solution in which water is not used as a solvent
B. A solution in which water is the only solvent
C. A solution in which solutes are not dissolved
D. A solution in which solvents are not dissolved

16. Which of the following is an example of an aqueous solution?

A. Gasoline and water
B. Salt and oil
C. Sugar and water
D. Oxygen and nitrogen

17. What is a saturated solution?

A. A solution in which no solute is dissolved
B. A solution in which solvents are not dissolved
C. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature
D. A solution in which more solute can be dissolved at a particular temperature

18. If 100g of sugar is dissolved in 200ml of water at room temperature, is the solution saturated or unsaturated?

A. Saturated
B. Unsaturated
C. Super-saturated
D. None of the above

19. What is an unsaturated solution?

A. A solution in which no solute is dissolved
B. A solution in which solvents are not dissolved
C. A solution that has less amount of solute than required to become saturated at a particular temperature
D. A solution that has more solute than required to become saturated at a particular temperature

20. Which of the following is an example of a concentrated solution?

A. 50g of salt dissolved in 1L of water B. 20g of sugar dissolved in 500mL of water C. 10g of salt dissolved in 500mL of water D. 30g of sugar dissolved in 1L of water

21. What is a dilute solution?

A. A solution in which no solute is dissolved
B. A solution in which solvents are not dissolved
C. A solution that has more solute than required to become saturated at a particular temperature
D. A solution that has less amount of solute than required to become saturated at a particular temperature

22. What type of solution has a capacity for dissolution that has not been reached at a particular temperature?

A. Saturated solution
B. Unsaturated solution
C. Super-saturated solution
D. Dilute solution

23. Which of the following is an example of a super-saturated solution?

A. 100g of sugar dissolved in 500mL of water
B. 150g of salt dissolved in 500mL of water
C. 200g of sugar dissolved in 500mL of water
D. 250g of salt dissolved in 1L of water

MCQs on Solubility and Factors affecting solubility

24. What is Solubility?

A. The amount of solute required to saturate 100g of the solvent at a particular temperature.
B. The amount of solvent required to saturate 100g of the solute at a particular temperature.
C. The ability of a solvent to saturate 100g of the solute.
D. The ability of a solute to saturate 100g of the solvent.

25. What is the formula for solubility?

A. Mass of solvent / Mass of solute x 100
B. Mass of solute / Mass of solvent x 100
C. Mass of solvent x Mass of solute x 100
D. Mass of solute - Mass of solvent x 100

26. What does solubility mean?

A. The ability of a solvent to saturate a solute.
B. The ability of a solute to saturate a solvent.
C. The amount of solvent required to saturate a solute.
D. The amount of solute required to saturate a solvent.

27. Which is more soluble in water at a particular temperature, Sodium Nitrate or Silver Chloride?

A. Sodium Nitrate
B. Silver Chloride
C. Both have the same solubility in water at that temperature
D. Not enough information to determine

28. What are completely miscible liquids?

A. Liquids that mix up with each other up to a limited extent.
B. Liquids that do not mix at all.
C. Liquids that mix up with each other in all proportions.
D. Liquids that mix up with each other only under certain conditions.

29. Give an example of completely miscible liquids.

A. Water and carbon-tetra-chloride
B. Water and benzene
C. Water and alcohol
D. Water and carbon-di-Sulphide

30. What are completely immiscible liquids?

A. Liquids which mix up with each other up to a limited extent.
B. Liquids which do not mix at all.
C. Liquids which mix up with each other in all proportions.
D. Liquids which mix up with each other only under certain conditions.

31. Give an example of partially miscible liquids.

A. Water and phenol
B. Water and alcohol
C. Water and benzene
D. Water and carbon-di-Sulphide

32. A heterogeneous mixture of two or more two different substances is called:

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Colloid
D. None of the above

33. The solution in which the solution particles are bigger than the solution and smaller than the suspension is called:

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Colloid
D. None of the above

34. Colloids are:

A. Homogeneous throughout
B. Heterogeneous throughout
C. Uniform throughout
D. None of the above

35. Suspensions are:

A. Stable and do not separate upon standing
B. Unstable and can separate upon standing
C. Have non-uniform composition throughout
D. None of the above

36. Colloids show:

A. Strong Tyndall effect
B. Weak Tyndall effect
C. No Tyndall effect
D. None of the above

37. Solutions are:

A. Opaque
B. Translucent
C. Transparent
D. None of the above

38. Suspensions are:

A. Highly mobile and can flow easily
B. Less mobile and cannot flow easily
C. Homogeneous throughout
D. None of the above

39. Colloids:

A. Can pass through a filter paper in filtration
B. Cannot pass through a filter paper in filtration
C. Show scattering of light in all directions
D. None of the above

40. What is the definition of concentration?

A. The amount of solvent dissolved in a given amount of solute
B. The amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solvent
C. The total amount of solution
D. The ratio of solute to solvent

41. What is a standard solution?

A. A solution that is diluted
B. A solution with an unknown concentration
C. A solution with a known concentration
D. A solution with no solute

42. Which concentration units are commonly used?

A. Percentage composition of solution and mass-mass percentage
B. Mass-volume percentage and volume-mass percentage
C. Volume-volume percentage and mass-mass percentage
D. Percentage composition of solution and volume-volume percentage

43. What is percentage composition of solution?

A. The number of parts of solvent present in 100 parts of solution
B. The fraction of solvent in a solution multiplied by 100
C. The number of parts of solute present in 100 parts of solution
D. The fraction of solute in a solution multiplied by 100

44. What is mass-mass (m/m%) percentage?

A. The number of grams by mass of solute present in 100 grams by mass of a solution
B. The number of grams by mass of solvent present in 100 grams by mass of a solution
C. The number of grams by volume of solute present in 100 mL of a solution
D. The volume in cm3/ml of a solute dissolved per 100 cm3 of solution

45. What is volume-mass (V/m%) percentage?

A. The volume in cm3 of a solute dissolved in 100 g of solution
B. The number of grams by volume of solute present in 100 mL of a solution
C. The number of grams by mass of solute present in 100 grams by mass of a solution
D. The volume in cm3/ml of a solute dissolved per 100 cm3 of solution

46. What is volume-volume (V/V%) percentage?

A. The volume in cm3 of a solute dissolved per 100 cm3 of solution
B. The number of grams by mass of solute present in 100 grams by mass of a solution
C. The number of grams by volume of solute present in 100 mL of a solution
D. The number of parts of solute present in 100 parts of solution

47. What is molarity?

A. The amount of solvent dissolved in a given amount of solute.
B. The amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solvent.
C. The number of moles of solute and solvent in a given volume of solution.
D. The number of particles of solute and solvent in a given volume of solution.

48. What is the unit of molarity?

A. Gram-per-mole
B. Gram-per-liter
C. Mole-per-liter
D. Mole-per-gram

49. What is the formula for molarity?

A. Molarity (M) = Mass of Solute / Volume of Solution in dm3
B. Molarity (M) = Mass of Solution / Volume of Solute in dm3
C. Molarity (M) = Number of Particles of Solute / Volume of Solution in dm3
D. Molarity (M) = Number of moles of Solute / Volume of Solution in dm3

50. What is the unit of molarity represented in grams?

A. gmol-1
B. gL-1
C. gdm-3
D. gcm-3

50. How do you calculate molarity?

A. M = Number of moles of Solute / (Volume of Solution in dm3 (liter))
B. M = Amount of Solute in gram / (M.wt of Solute x Volume of Solution in dm3 )
C. M = Volume of Solution in dm3 / Number of moles of Solute
D. M = Mass of Solution / Volume of Solution in dm3





51. What is the molarity of a solution containing 12.0 grams of HCl in enough water to make 500 mL of solution? (Molecular weight of HCl is 36.5 g/mol)

A. 1.16 M
B. 0.058 M
C. 0.116 M
D. 11.6 M




52. What is the molarity of a solution containing 5.00 moles of NaOH in enough water to make 2.50 L of solution?

A. 12.5 M
B. 2.00 M
C. 1.00 M
D. 0.800 M

53. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 10 grams of NaOH dissolved in 500 cm3 of solution? (At. mass: Na = 23g, O = 16g, H = 1g)

A) 0.2 M
B) 1 M
C) 2 M
D) 0.5 M




54. What is the molarity of a solution containing 15 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 cm3 of solution? (At. mass: C = 12g, O = 16g, H = 1g)

A) 0.2 M
B) 1 M
C) 2 M
D) 0.5 M

Answer: b) 1 M



0.333



55. How many grams of NaOH are required to prepare 500 cm3 of a 2 M solution? (At. mass: Na = 23g, O = 16g, H = 1g)

A) 20 g
B) 40 g
C) 60 g
D) 80 g




56. What is the molarity of a solution containing 0.5 moles of KCl in 250 cm3 of solution? (At. mass: K = 39g, Cl = 35.5g)

A) 0.2 M
B) 1 M
C) 2 M
D) 0.5 M

Answer: d) 0.5 M.........C..2 M





57. How many grams of CaCl2 are required to prepare 500 cm3 of a 0.5 M solution? (At. mass: Ca = 40g, Cl = 35.5g)

A) 20 g
B) 40 g
C) 60 g
D) 80 g

Answer: b) 40 g

58. What is the molarity of a solution containing 4.5 grams of NaOH dissolved in 250 cm3? (At. mass: Na = 23g, O = 16g, H = 1g)

S) 0.5 M
B) 1 M
C) 2 M
D) 0.2 M

Answer: a) 0.5 M

59. How many grams of glucose (C6H12O6) are required to prepare 500 cm3 of a 1.5 M solution? (At. mass: C = 12g, O = 16g, H = 1g)

A) 67.5 g
B) 90 g
C) 135 g
D) 180 g

Answer: c) 135 g

60. What is the molarity of a solution containing 0.25 moles of NaCl in 500 cm3 of solution? (At. mass: Na = 23g, Cl = 35.5g)

A) 0.25 M
B) 0.5 M
C) 1 M
D) 2 M

Answer: b) 0.5 M

61. How many grams of KCl are required to prepare 500 cm3 of a 1 M solution? (At. mass: K = 39g, Cl = 35.5g)

A) 39 g
B) 74.5 g
C) 118 g
D) 227.5 g

Answer: b) 74.5 g

62. What factor affects the solubility of a solution?

A) Temperature
B) Pressure
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

Answer: a) Temperature

63. How is solubility related to temperature?

A) Solubility and temperature are directly related.
B) Solubility and temperature are inversely related.
C) Solubility and temperature have no relation.
D) Solubility and temperature are related randomly.

Answer: a) Solubility and temperature are directly related.

64. Which process occurs when solutes absorb heat?

A) Hyperthermic process
B) Exothermic process
C) Neither A nor B
D) Both A and B

Answer: C)

65. When does the solubility of sugar in water increase?

A) When heat is released
B) When there is no change in temperature
C) When heat is absorbed
D) None of the above

Answer: c) When heat is absorbed

66. Which of the following solutes releases heat?

A) Sugar
B) Calcium oxide (CaO)
C) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
D) Potassium bromide (KBr)

Answer: b) Calcium oxide (CaO)

67. Does the solubility of NaCl and KBr change with an increase or decrease in temperature?

A) Yes, it increases with an increase in temperature
B) Yes, it decreases with an increase in temperature
C) No, it remains unchanged
D) None of the above

Answer: c) No, it remains unchanged

68. What happens to the solubility of sodium sulphate dehydrate (Na2SO4.10H2O) above 32.4 ℃?

A) It remains the same
B) It increases
C) It decreases
D) It becomes anhydrous

Answer: d) It becomes anhydrous

69. How does the solubility of a solute that releases heat change with temperature?

A) It increases with an increase in temperature
B) It decreases with an increase in temperature
C) It remains the same
D) It depends on the solute

Answer: b) It decreases with an increase in temperature

70. Which of the following processes is characterized by the absorption of heat?

A) Exothermic process
B) Endothermic process
C) Neither A nor B
D) Both A and B

Answer: b) Endothermic process

71. What happens to the solubility of a solute that absorbs heat when temperature is increased?

A) It increases
B) It decreases
C) It remains the same
D) It depends on the solute

Answer: a) It increases

72. How does pressure affect the solubility of gases?

A) Pressure has no effect on the solubility of gases
B) Increase in pressure increases the solubility of gases
C) Decrease in pressure increases the solubility of gases
D) Increase in pressure decreases the solubility of gases

Answer: b) Increase in pressure increases the solubility of gases

73. What is the effect of pressure on the solubility of solids and liquids?

A) Solids and liquids become more soluble with increase in pressure
B) Solids and liquids become less soluble with increase in pressure
C) Pressure has no effect on the solubility of solids and liquids
D) Solids become more soluble and liquids become less soluble with increase in pressure

Answer: c) Pressure has no effect on the solubility of solids and liquids

74. How does the nature of solvent affect solubility?

A) Solubility decreases when the solute and solvent have similar properties
B) Solubility increases when the solute and solvent have similar properties
C) The nature of the solvent has no effect on solubility
D) The effect of the nature of the solvent on solubility depends on the nature of the solute

Answer: b) Solubility increases when the solute and solvent have similar properties

75. What is the effect of an endothermic process on solubility?

A) Solubility increases with increase in temperature
B) Solubility decreases with increase in temperature
C) Solubility remains constant with increase in temperature
D) Solubility decreases with decrease in temperature

Answer: a) Solubility increases with increase in temperature

76. What is the effect of an exothermic process on solubility?

A) Solubility increases with increase in temperature
B) Solubility decreases with increase in temperature
C) Solubility remains constant with increase in temperature
D) Solubility decreases with decrease in temperature

Answer: b) Solubility decreases with increase in temperature

77. What is the effect of the nature of solute on solubility?

A) Solubility always increases with increase in the nature of the solute
B) Solubility always decreases with increase in the nature of the solute
C) The effect of the nature of solute on solubility depends on the nature of the solvent
D) The nature of the solute has no effect on solubility

Answer: c) The effect of the nature of solute on solubility depends on the nature of the solvent

78. Why does the solubility of gases increase with increase in pressure?

A) Gases become more polar with increase in pressure
B) Gases become less polar with increase in pressure
C) Gases become more compressible with increase in pressure
D) Gases become less compressible with increase in pressure

Answer: c) Gases become more compressible with increase in pressure

79. What is Solute Solvent Interaction?

A) The force of attraction between the solute and solvent molecules
B) The force of attraction between solute and solvent of same nature cl
C) The force of attraction between solute and solvent of different nature
D) The force of attraction between solute and solute molecules

80. What is the role of solute solvent interaction in solubility?

A) It determines the nature of solute
B) It determines the nature of solvent
C) It determines the extent of solubility
D) It determines the concentration of solute

Answers

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. C  17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. C  38. B 39. 40. B 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A     45. A 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. B 53. D 54. 55. B 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93.


Make 10 standarized MCQs along with providing four options in the form A. B C. D. as well as correct answers indicated among these four options for the given 

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100+ MCQs on Bioenergetics, Photosynthesis, and Respiration for Board Exams and Entry Tests

IQ Boost with 100+ MCQs on Introduction to Photosynthesis and Respirations for Exams and Tests

Are you a student preparing for an upcoming biology exam or test? Do you struggle with understanding the concepts of bioenergetics, photosynthesis, and respiration? Look no further! In this article, we will provide you with a set of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that cover the basics of bioenergetics, including oxidation-reduction reactions, photosynthesis, respiration, glycolysis, Kreb's Cycle, and the respiratory electron transport chain. These MCQs are essential for exams and tests such as Board Exams, NEET, MDCAT, NTS, CSS, PMS, PMA, and many more. By attempting these MCQs, you can test your knowledge and clear your concepts, ultimately leading to better exam results and passing tests/entrance exams. Let's get started!

Biology MCQs on Introduction to Photosynthesis and Respiration
From the MCQs Library of H.E.S (Health, Education, and Skills)

MCQs on Basic terms and definitions

1. What is bioenergetics?

A. The study of living organisms
B. The study of energy
C. The study of metabolic activities
D. The study of storing, using, and releasing energy

2. Which type of reaction requires energy?

A. Endergonic reactions
B. Exergonic reactions
C. Respiration
D. None

3 Which process converts energy from one form to another in living organisms?

A. Photosynthesis
B. Respiration
C. Bioenergetics
D. Metabolism

4. What is an example of an endergonic reaction?

A. Photosynthesis
B. Respiration
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

5. Which field benefits from the study of bioenergetics?

A. Agriculture
B. Medicine
C. Biotechnology
D. All of the above

6. What is the process by which green plants capture solar energy and convert it into stored chemical energy?

A. Cellular respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Metabolism
D. Fermentation

7. What happens to the energy stored in glucose molecules during respiration?

A. It is converted into light energy
B. It is converted into mechanical and heat energy
C. It is released into the environment
D. It is converted into sound energy

8. What is oxidation?

A. The gain of electrons
B. The gain of hydrogen
C. The loss of electrons
D. The loss of hydrogen

9. What is reduction?

A. The gain of electrons
B. The gain of hydrogen
C. The loss of electrons
D. The loss of hydrogen

10. What are photosynthesis and respiration examples of?

A. Oxidation reactions
B. Reduction reactions
C. Redox reactions
D. None of the above

11. What is the primary energy currency used by cells?

A. ATP
B. ADP
C. AMP
D. GTP

12. What is the importance of oxidation-reduction reactions?

A. They store and release biological energy
B. They regulate cell division
C. They break down cell membranes
D. They control metabolic pathways

13. What is reduced during photosynthesis?

A. CO2
B. Water
C. Sugar
D. Oxygen

14. What is oxidized during respiration?

A. CO2
B. Water
C. Sugar
D. Oxygen

15. Why would life processes be impossible without oxidation-reduction reactions?

A. Because they produce too much energy
B. Because they consume too much energy
C. Because they regulate metabolic pathways
D. Because they store and release biological energy

MCQs on Introduction to Photosyntehsis

16. Which two Greek words combine to form the word "photosynthesis"?

A. Light and reaction
B. Oxygen and manufacture
C. Sunlight and food
D. Light and synthesis

17. What are the reactants in photosynthesis?

A. Glucose and oxygen
B. Water and oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide and water
D. Carbon dioxide and glucose

18. What are the products of photosynthesis?

A. Water and oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide and glucose
C. Glucose and oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide and water

19. What is the overall reaction of photosynthesis?

A. 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
B. C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
C. CO2 + H2O → C6H12O6 + O2
D. C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

20. What are autotrophs?

A. Plants that carry out photosynthesis
B. Plants that depend on other plants for food
C. Animals that carry out photosynthesis
D. Animals that cannot use sunlight for energy

21. Why do heterotrophs depend on green plants?

A. For their water requirements
B. For their energy requirements
C. For their oxygen requirements
D. For their carbon dioxide requirements

22. What happens if photosynthesis stops?

A. Life becomes more sustainable
B. Life becomes impossible
C. Life becomes easier for heterotrophs
D. Life becomes more dependent on animals

23. How does photosynthesis help regulate the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A. It emits carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
B. It converts carbon dioxide into oxygen
C. It removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
D. It converts carbon dioxide into pyruvate

24. What is the importance of photosynthesis in ecosystems?

A. It supports the survival of countless species
B. It only supports the survival of green plants
C. It increases the impact of greenhouse gases
D. It reduces the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere

25. What is the source of energy used by heterotrophs?

A. Sunlight
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water
D. Other organisms

26. What is the potential benefit of photosynthesis in terms of energy production?

A. It can produce nuclear energy
B. It can produce fossil fuels
C. It can produce renewable biofuels
D. It can produce non-renewable biofuels

27. What is the main function of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

A. Absorbing blue and red portions of sunlight
B. Absorbing green portion of sunlight
C. Reflecting sunlight
D. None of the above

28. What happens when chlorophyll absorbs light?

A. Its electrons are excited
B. Its electrons are destroyed
C. Its electrons are converted into glucose
D. None of the above

29. In which part of the cell is chlorophyll present in plants and algae?

A. Mitochondria
B. Nucleus
C. Chloroplast
D. Ribosome

30. Which of the following is the main photosynthetic pigment?

A. Chlorophyll a
B. Chlorophyll b
C. Carotenoids
D. Bacteriochlorophyll

31. What are accessory pigments in photosynthesis?

A. Pigments that reflect sunlight
B. Pigments that reflect a green portion of sunlight
C. Pigments that enhance the absorption of the blue and red portions of sunlight D. None of the above

32. Which pigments absorb energy from sunlight in photosynthesis?

A. Chlorophyll and carotenoids
B. Chlorophyll and bacteriochlorophyll
C. Chlorophyll and anthocyanins
D. Chlorophyll and phycobilins

33. What are photosystems?

A. Clusters of photosynthetic pigments in the thylakoid membrane
B. Clusters of pigments that reflect sunlight
C. Clusters of pigments that absorb the green portion of sunlight
D. None of the above

34. Which types of organisms have chlorophyll present in the cell membrane?

A. Animals
B. Plants
C. Fungi
D. Photosynthetic prokaryotes

35. What is the percentage of CO2 present in the air?

A. 0.1%
B. 0.03%
C. 0.5%
D. 1%

36. Where are stomata present in the leaf?

A. Upper epidermis
B. Middle layer
C. Lower epidermis
D. None of the above

37. What guards each stoma?

A. Two bean-shaped guard cells
B. Two round-shaped guard cells
C. Two square-shaped guard cells
D. Two triangle-shaped guard cells

38. What is the first step of the diffusion of CO2?

A. CO2 attaches to mesophyll cells
B. CO2 enters green cells
C. CO2 diffuses into intercellular spaces
D. CO2 enters the stroma

MCQs on Mechanisms of Photosynthesis Light and Dark Reaction

39. In which reaction is the carbon of CO2 fixed?

A. Light reaction
B. Dark reaction
C. Both reactions
D. None of the above

40. How is water transported upward to the stem and leaves?

A. Through phloem vessels
B. Through xylem vessels
C. Through stomata
D. Through roots

41. What is the fate of most of the water absorbed by the plants?

A. It is used in photosynthesis
B. It is used in metabolic activities
C. It is transpired
D. It is stored in the leaves

42. What is Lebig's about?

A. It is a law of thermodynamics
B. It is a law of gravity
C. It is a law of limiting factors
D. It is a law of motion

43. According to Lebig's law of limiting factors, what limits the rate of a chemical process?

A. The factor which is present in maximum quantity
B. The factor which is present in minimum quantity
C. The factor which is not related to the chemical process
D. None of the above

44. What is a limiting factor?

A. A factor that increases the rate of a metabolic reaction
B. A factor that decreases the rate of a metabolic reaction
C. A factor that has no effect on the rate of a metabolic reaction
D. A factor that changes the type of a metabolic reaction

45. What are the factors that affect the process of photosynthesis?

A. Light, water, oxygen, and optimum temperature
B. Light, chlorophyll, CO2, water, and optimum temperature
C. Oxygen, nitrogen, CO2, and water
D. Chlorophyll, nitrogen, CO2, and water

46. What happens when all other requirements for photosynthesis are optimum but CO2 is low?

A. The rate of photosynthesis increases
B. The rate of photosynthesis decreases
C. The rate of photosynthesis remains the same
D. The type of photosynthesis changes

MCQs on Respiration, its types, and mechanism

47. What is respiration?

A. The process of breaking down inorganic compounds
B. The process of breaking down organic food to release energy
C. The process of combining inorganic food to release energy
D. None

48. What is the reaction to respiration?

A. C6H12O6 → 6CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy
B. 6CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy → C6H12O6
C. C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + Energy → 6CO2
D. 6CO2 → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + Energy

49. What is anaerobic respiration?

A. Respiration that takes place in the presence of free oxygen
B. Respiration that takes place in the absence of free oxygen
C. Respiration that involves Krebs’s cycle
D. Respiration that releases more energy than aerobic respiration

50. What are the two types of anaerobic respiration?

A. Alcoholic fermentation and photosynthesis
B. Lactic acid fermentation and alcoholic fermentation
C. Glycolysis and Krebs’s cycle
D. Photosynthesis and glycolysis

51. What is aerobic respiration?

A. Respiration that takes place in the absence of free oxygen
B. Respiration that involves only glycolysis
C. Respiration that involves complete oxidation of food into CO2 and water
D. Respiration that releases less energy than anaerobic respiration

52. What are the three steps involved in aerobic respiration?

A. Glycolysis, fermentation, and Krebs’s cycle
B. Krebs’s cycle, glycolysis, and fermentation
C. Glycolysis, Krebs’s cycle, and electron transport chain
D. Electron transport chain, glycolysis, and Krebs’s cycle

53. Why is respiration important for living organisms?

A. It provides the raw materials for growth and reproduction
B. It helps in movement and locomotion
C. It produces oxygen for the organism to breathe
D. It provides energy for life activities

54. How many ATP molecules are generated in total when one molecule of glucose undergoes aerobic respiration?

A) 38
B) 36
C) 30
D) 2

55. What is the total number of ATP molecules generated in glycolysis?

A) 2
B) 6
C) 8
D) 36

56. What is the net gain of ATP molecules in aerobic respiration after considering the consumption of ATP by NADPH2 of glycolysis?

A) 38
B) 36
C) 30
D) 8

57. What is the complete oxidation product of pyruvic acid in Krebs's cycle?

A) Carbon dioxide and water
B) Pyruvic acid
C) ATP
D) NADPH2

58. What is ATP?

A. A type of sugar
B. A source of energy in living cells
C. A type of protein
D. A waste product of cellular respiration

59. What is the full form of ATP?

A. Adenosine Tri-phosphate
B. Adenosine Tetra-phosphate
C. Adenine Tri-phosphate
D. Adenine Tetra-phosphate

60. What happens when ATP is hydrolyzed?

A. It forms ADP and organic phosphate
B. It forms ADP and inorganic phosphate
C. It forms AMP and inorganic phosphate
D. It forms AMP and organic phosphate

61. Which component of ATP is an organic molecule?

A. Ribose sugar
B. Phosphate group
C. Adenine
D. Both A and C

62. What type of bond yields more energy upon hydrolysis in ATP?

A. Low-energy phosphate bond
B. Covalent bond
C. High-energy phosphate bond
D. Hydrogen bond

63. How many phosphate groups are there in ATP?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

64. What is the structure of ribose sugar in ATP?

A. A six-carbon ring
B. A five-carbon ring
C. A four-carbon ring
D. A three-carbon ring

65. Which symbol represents high-energy phosphate bonds in ATP?

A. -
B. ~
C. #
D. *

66. Which of the following is not a step in the synthesis of ATP?

A. Adenine combining with a 5-carbon ribose sugar to form adenosine
B. Bonding of phosphate to adenosine to form AMP
C. Addition of another phosphate group to AMP to form ADP
D. Hydrolysis of ATP into ADP and phosphate

67. What is the energy source for the synthesis of ATP?

A. Sunlight
B. Breakdown of glucose during respiration
C. Photosynthesis
D. Cellular waste products

68. What is the energy cost for the synthesis of ATP?

A. 3.7 Kcal
B. 73 Kcal
C. 730 Kcal
D. 7.3 Kcal

69. Which of the following molecules is not involved in the synthesis of ATP?

A. Adenine
B. Ribose
C. Glucose
D. Phosphate

70. What is the molecule formed when phosphate is bonded to adenosine?

A. AMP
B. ADP
C. ATP
D. Glucose

71. Which of the following is an exergonic reaction?

A. Synthesis of ATP
B. Hydrolysis of ATP
C. Synthesis of glucose
D. None

72. What is the structure of the chloroplast?

A. Two membranes and a granum
B. A single membrane and a stroma
C. A double membrane and a stroma
D. A single membrane and a granum

73. What is a granum in the chloroplast?

A. A type of enzyme
B. A stack of flattened sacs called thylakoids
C. A gel-like solution called matrix
D. A type of pigment molecule

74. What is the function of the grana in the chloroplast?

A. To provide structure to the chloroplast
B. To trap light for photosynthesis
C. To produce enzymes for photosynthesis
D. To store energy in the form of glucose

75. Which of the following is present within the membrane of thylakoids?

A. Enzymes
B. Chlorophyll and carotenoids
C. Matrix
D. Stacks

76. What is the function of the stroma in the chloroplast?

A. To provide structure to the chloroplast 
B. To trap light for photosynthesis
C. To produce enzymes for photosynthesis

D. To perform the light-independent reaction of photosynthesis

77. What is the gel-like solution in the stroma called?

A. Enzyme-rich solution
B. Thylakoid solution
C. Granum solution
D. Matrix

78. What is the visible appearance of grana under a light microscope?

A. Sacs
B. Coins
C. Stacks
D. Pouches

79. Which of the following is not a product of the light reaction?

A. ATP
B. NADPH2
C. CO2
D. Oxygen

80. Where does the light reaction of photosynthesis take place?

A. Stroma
B. Cytoplasm
C. Grana
D. Mitochondria

81. Which photosystem absorbs light of 700 nm and is called P-700?

A. Photosystem-I
B. Photosystem-II
C. Photosynthetic pigments
D. Chloroplast

82. What is the Calvin cycle?

A. A reaction that takes place in grana
B. A reaction that doesn't require energy from sunlight
C. A reaction that produces ATP
D. A reaction that produces oxygen

83. Who investigated the Calvin cycle?

A. Calvin Klein
B. Melvin Calvin
C. John Calvin
D. Calvin Harris

84. Where does the dark reaction of photosynthesis take place?

A. Grana
B. Cytoplasm
C. Stroma
D. Mitochondria

85. What is the function of NADPH2 in the dark reaction?

A. To reduce CO2
B. To provide hydrogen
C. To provide energy
D. To produce glucose

86. What is the main product of the dark reaction?

A. Oxygen
B. ATP
C. NADPH2
D. Glucose

87. What is the equation for the reduction of CO2 in the dark reaction?

A. CO2 + ATP → C6H12O6 + 6H2O
B. CO2 + NADPH2 → C6H12O6 + 6H2O
C. CO2 + Glucose → ATP + NADPH2
D. CO2 + Sunlight → Glucose + Oxygen

88. What is the effect of intense light on the rate of photosynthesis?

A. It accelerates the process
B. It slows down the process
C. It damages the chlorophyll
D. It has no effect on the process

89. What is the only source of Carbon in the production of Glucose?

A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Water

90. What is the optimum temperature range for photosynthesis?

A. Between 0°C and 10°C
B. Between 10°C and 20°C
C. Between 20°C and 30°C
D. Above 30°C

91. At what temperature does the process of photosynthesis stop completely?

A. 10°C
B. 20°C
C. 30°C
D. 45°C

92. Which type of microorganisms carry out alcoholic fermentation?

A) Yeast
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Both A and C

93. What is the end product of alcoholic fermentation?

A) Lactic acid
B) Ethanol
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Both B and C

94. How many ATP molecules are produced in the second step of lactic acid fermentation?

A) 0 ATP
B) 1 ATP
C) 2 ATP
D) 4 ATP

95. Which type of fermentation is carried out by muscle cells of human beings during excessive energy demand?

A) Alcoholic fermentation
B) Ethanol fermentation
C) Lactic acid fermentation
D) None of the above

96. Which type of fermentation is responsible for the production of alcohol in the brewing and wine-making industry?

A) Alcoholic fermentation
B) Ethanol fermentation
C) Lactic acid fermentation
D) None of the above

97. What is the meaning of “Glyco” in glycolysis?

A. Glucose
B. Enzyme
C. Acid
D. Oxygen

98. What is the location of glycolysis?

A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Cytosol
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

99. How many ATP molecules are used in glycolysis?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

100. How many ATP molecules are produced in glycolysis?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

101. Who discovered the Krebs cycle?

A. Sir Isaac Newton
B. Sir Hans Krebs
C. Albert Einstein
D. Charles Darwin Answer: B. Sir Hans Krebs

102. Where does the Krebs cycle take place?

A. Cytosol
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

103. What is the end product of the Krebs cycle?

A. Pyruvic acid
B. Glucose
C. CO2 and water
D. ATP Answer: C. CO2 and water

104. How many ATP molecules are produced in the Krebs cycle?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 36

105. What is the transport of electrons through a series of cytochromes known as?

A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Electron transport chain
D. Aerobic respiration

106. What is the oxidation of reduced coenzyme in ETC?

A. NADH
B. ATP
C. CO2
D. Water

107. What accepts electrons at the end of ETC?

A. NADH
B. ATP
C. CO2
D. Oxygen

108. What is the function of the cytochromes in ETC?

A. Transport glucose
B. Release energy
C. Pass electrons along
D. Form ATP

Answers

1. D 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. B  45. B 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. B 51. C  52. C 53. D 54. B 55. C 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. A 60. B 61. D 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. B 66. D 67. B 68. D 69. C 70. A 71. B 72. C 73. B 74. B 75. B 76. D 77. D 78. B 79. C  80. C 81. A 82. B 83. B 84. C 85. B 86. D 87. B 88. C 89. B 90. C 91. D 92. D 93. D 94. A 95. C 96. A 97. A 98. C 99. B 100. D 101. B 102. C 103. C 104. D 105. C 106. A 107. D 108. C

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80 + Chemistry MCQs on Solids, Liquids, and Gases for High Score in Exams and Tests

Mastering Physical States of Matter | 80+ MCQs for Exams and Entrance Tests Success

Chemistry is an essential subject that is widely studied across the globe. It helps to understand the fundamental principles of matter and the chemical reactions that govern our world. For students preparing for entrance exams such as BISE, Federal Board, NEET, MDCAT, ETEA, CSS, PMS, and others, having a strong foundation in the basics of Chemistry is crucial. This is where MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions) play a vital role in preparing for such exams.

In this blog post, we will cover the most important basic level Chemistry MCQs for entrance exams, specifically focusing on the topics of gases, their properties, Boyle's Law, Charles's Law, liquids and their properties, and solids and their types. We have compiled a list of 80+ MCQs that cover the essential concepts in these topics, which will help students to reinforce their knowledge and boost their confidence when it comes to facing these exams.

Whether you're a high school student preparing for your board exams, a college student getting ready for your entrance test, or an aspirant looking to crack the CSS or PMS exams, this blog post will provide you with the necessary tools to succeed. So, let's dive in and explore these MCQs to strengthen our understanding of the basics of Chemistry.

Chemistry MCQs on the Physical State of Matter
From the MCQs Library of H.E.S (Health, Education, and Skills) 

MCQs on basic terms and definitions 

1. What is the matter?

A. Anything that has mass but no volume
B. Anything that occupies space and has mass
C. Anything that has volume but no mass
D. Anything that is transparent and has no color

2. What is a solid?

A. A state of matter that has a fixed shape and volume
B. A state of matter that has a fixed shape but no volume
C. A state of matter that has no shape and no volume
D. A state of matter that has no shape but a fixed volume

3. What is a liquid?

A. A state of matter that has a fixed shape and volume
B. A state of matter that has a fixed shape but no volume
C. A state of matter that has no shape and no volume
D. A state of matter that has no shape but a fixed volume

4. What is gas?

A. A state of matter that has a fixed shape and volume
B. A state of matter that has a fixed shape but no volume
C. A state of matter that has no shape and no volume
D. A state of matter that has no shape but an indefinite volume

5. What makes solids hard?

A. The intermolecular forces of attraction in solids are weaker than in liquids and gases
B. The intermolecular forces of attraction in solids are the same as in liquids and gases
C. The intermolecular forces of attraction in solids are stronger than in liquids and gases
D. None

6. What is the difference between a liquid and a gas?

A. Liquids have a fixed shape and volume, while gases have an indefinite shape and volume
B. Liquids have a fixed shape but no fixed volume, while gases have an indefinite shape and volume
C. Liquids have an indefinite shape and volume, while gases have a fixed shape and volume
D. Liquids and gases are in the same states of matter

7. What are intermolecular attractive forces?

A. The forces of attraction between atoms within a molecule
B. The forces of attraction between molecules of a substance
C. The forces of attraction between two different substances
D. The forces of repulsion between molecules of a substance

8. Which of the following physical properties depends on the strength of intermolecular attractive forces?

A. Chemical reactivity
B. Atomic mass
C. Melting point
D. Atomic number

9. Why are solids hard?

A. Because intermolecular attractive forces in solid molecules are weak
B. Because intermolecular attractive forces in solid molecules are moderate
C. Because intermolecular attractive forces in solid molecules are strong
D. Because intermolecular attractive forces in solid molecules do not exist

10. Which of the following has the strongest intermolecular attractive forces?

A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. They are all the same

11. What happens to the boiling point of a substance as the strength of intermolecular attractive forces increases?

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains the same
D. It depends on the substance

12. Which of the following has the highest vapor pressure?

A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. They all have the same vapor pressure

13. Which of the following is a physical property that can be used to determine the strength of intermolecular attractive forces?

A. Color
B. Chemical reactivity
C. Density
D. Atomic radius

MCQs on typical properties of Gases

14. Which of the following properties are typical of gases?

A) Definite volume and shape
B) Definite volume and indefinite shape
C) Indefinite volume and definite shape
D) Indefinite volume and shape

15. What is the pressure exerted by gases due to?

A) Their fixed volume
B) Their fixed shape
C) Their collisions with each other and the walls of the container
D) Their density

16. What is the normal atmospheric pressure?

A) 760 mm of Hg
B) 760 cm of Hg
C) 760 m of Hg
D) 760 km of Hg

17. Which property of gases allows them to be compressed?

A) Density
B) Mobility
C) Expansion
D) Indefinite shape

18. What is diffusion?

A) The escaping of gas molecules one by one from a container
B) The spontaneous mixing of the molecules of one gas with another at a given temperature and pressure
C) The increase in pressure with an increase in temperature
D) The decrease in pressure with a decrease in temperature

19. Which property of gases is inversely proportional to their volume?

A) Density
B) Mobility
C) Expansion
D) Pressure

20. What is the relationship between the mass of a gas and its diffusion?

A) The greater the mass of the gas, the greater its diffusion
B) The greater the mass of the gas, the lesser its diffusion
C) There is no relationship between the mass of a gas and its diffusion
D) The mass of a gas does not affect its diffusion

21. What is the relationship between the pressure of gases and temperature?

A) The pressure of gases decreases with an increase in temperature
B) The pressure of gases increases with a decrease in temperature
C) The pressure of gases increases with an increase in temperature
D) There is no relationship between the pressure of gases and temperature

22. What is the relationship between the density of gases and their volume?

A) The density of gases is directly proportional to their volume
B) The density of gases is inversely proportional to their volume
C) The density of gases is directly proportional to their mass
D) The density of gases is inversely proportional to their mass

23. What is diffusion?

A. The movement of gaseous molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.
B. The movement of gaseous molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
C. The movement of liquid molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
D. The movement of solid molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.

24. What is effusion?

A. The movement of gaseous molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.
B. The movement of gaseous molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
C. The movement of liquid molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
D. The movement of solid molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration through a small hole of molecular size.

25. In what state(s) of matter can diffusion take place?

A. Solids only
B. Liquids only
C. Gases only
D. Solids, liquids, and gases

26. In what state(s) of matter can effusion take place?

A. Solids only
B. Liquids only
C. Gases only
D. Solids, liquids, and gases

27. Which of the following is an example of diffusion?

A. Puncturing of a tire, escaping of gas out of a balloon without bursting.
B. The spreading of rose smell in the area nearby the garden.
C. The movement of ink molecules from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration in water.
D. The movement of sound waves through a medium.

MCQs on typical properties of solids

28. Solids are rigid because

A) They have weak intermolecular forces
B) They have strong intermolecular forces
C) They have low density
D) They have low melting points

29. Which state of matter has the highest density?

A) Gas
B) Liquid
C) Solid
D) They all have the same density

30. What is the melting point of a solid?

A) The temperature at which it boils
B) The temperature at which it turns into a gas
C) The temperature at which it changes into a liquid
D) The temperature at which it becomes rigid

31. What does the purity of crystalline solids indicate?

A) The density of the solid
B) The melting point of the solid
C) The ability of the solid to conduct electricity
D) The color of the solid

32. Which type of solid has a regular pattern of particles to form three-dimensional shapes?

A) Crystalline solids
B) Amorphous solids
C) Liquid solids
D) Gas solids

33. What is the characteristic property of pure crystalline solids?

A) Irregular pattern of molecules
B) High rigidity
C) Sharp melting points
D) Low density

34. Which type of solid does not have a regular pattern of particles?

A) Crystalline solids
B) Amorphous solids
C) Liquid solids
D) Gas solids

35. Which of the following is an example of a crystalline solid?

A) Glass
B) Waxes
C) Sodium chloride
D) Rubber

36. What is the melting point of amorphous solids?

A) Sharp and well-defined
B) Varies depending on the composition
C) Lower than the melting point of crystalline solids
D) Higher than the melting point of crystalline solids

37. Which type of solid has a higher degree of randomness in its arrangement of particles?

A) Crystalline solids
B) Amorphous solids
C) Both have the same degree of randomness
D) Neither has any randomness in their arrangement

MCQs on Boyle's and Charles's Law

38. According to Boyle's law, what happens to the volume of a gas if its pressure is increased while keeping its temperature constant?

A) The volume increases
B) The volume remains constant
C) The volume decreases
D) The volume becomes zero

39. What is the mathematical form of Boyle's law?

A) P = K x V
B) P = K / V
C) V = K x P
D) V = K / P

40. If the initial pressure of a gas is 2 atm and the initial volume is 5 L, what will be the final volume if the pressure is decreased to 1 atm at a constant temperature, according to Boyle's law?

A) 2.5 L
B) 5 L
C) 10 L
D) 20 L

41. If the volume of a gas is halved while keeping its temperature constant, what will happen to its pressure according to Boyle's law?

A) The pressure doubles
B) The pressure halves
C) The pressure remains constant
D) The pressure becomes zero

42. What is the constant of proportionality in Boyle's law?

A) Pressure
B) Volume
C) Temperature
D) None of the above

43. If the pressure of a gas is increased from 1 atm to 4 atm while keeping its volume constant, what will happen to its temperature according to Boyle's law?

A) The temperature increases
B) The temperature decreases
C) The temperature remains constant
D) The temperature becomes zero

44. According to Boyle's law, if the pressure of a gas is halved while keeping its volume constant, what will happen to its density?

A) The density doubles
B) The density halves
C) The density remains constant
D) The density becomes zero

45. If the volume of a gas is tripled while keeping its pressure constant, what will happen to its temperature according to Boyle's law?

A) The temperature increases
B) The temperature decreases
C) The temperature remains constant
D) The temperature becomes zero

46. What is the equation representing Boyle's law?

A) P1V1 = P2V2
B) P1V1 = nRT
C) PV = nRT
D) PV = K

47. What is Boyle's law?

A. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its pressure at a constant temperature.
B. The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at a constant temperature.
C. The pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant volume.
D. The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature at constant volume.

48. According to Boyle's law, what is the mathematical relationship between pressure and volume at constant temperature?

A. P ∝ V
B. P ∝ T
C. P ∝ 1/V
D. P ∝ 1/T

49. According to Boyle's law, what happens to the volume of a gas when its pressure is increased at a constant temperature?

A. The volume increases.
B. The volume decreases.
C. The volume remains constant.
D. The volume becomes zero.

50. What is Charles's law?

A) The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its pressure at a constant temperature.
B) The pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant volume.
C) The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant pressure.
D) The pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume at a constant temperature.

51. According to Charles's law, if the temperature of a gas is increased at constant pressure, what happens to its volume?

A) It increases
B) It decreases
C) It remains constant
D) It becomes zero

52. What is the mathematical form of Charles's law?

A) V ∝ T
B) P ∝ T
C) V ∝ P
D) P ∝ V

53. If the initial volume of a gas is 5 L at a temperature of 300 K, what will be its final volume if the temperature is increased to 400 K at constant pressure?

A) 4 L
B) 5 L
C) 6 L
D) 7 L

54. According to Charles's law, if the temperature of a gas is decreased at constant pressure, what happens to its volume?

A) It increases
B) It decreases
C) It remains constant
D) It becomes zero

55. If the volume of a gas is 10 L at a temperature of 20°C, what will be its volume at 100°C, assuming constant pressure?

A) 10 L
B) 20 L
C) 30 L
D) 40 L

56. If the temperature of a gas is increased from 273 K to 373 K at constant pressure, what will be the ratio of its final volume to its initial volume?

A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 4:1

57. If the volume of a gas is 5 L at a temperature of 20°C, what will be its volume at 40°C, assuming constant pressure?

A) 5.2 L
B) 5.5 L
C) 6 L
D) 6.5 L

MCQs on typical properties of liquids

58. What happens to the kinetic energy of liquids with increasing temperature?

A. It decreases
B. It remains constant
C. It increases
D. It fluctuates

59. What is the boiling point of a liquid?

A. The temperature at which the liquid becomes a gas
B. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid becomes equal to atmospheric pressure
C. The temperature at which the liquid freezes
D. The temperature at which the liquid evaporates

60. What is the relationship between temperature and vapour pressure of liquids?

A. They are independent of each other
B. They are directly proportional to each other
C. They are inversely proportional to each other
D. They are non-linearly related to each other

61. What is the effect of increasing temperature on the boiling point of a liquid?

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains constant
D. It fluctuates

62. What is the effect of decreasing pressure on the boiling point of a liquid?

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains constant
D. It fluctuates

63. What is the effect of decreasing the temperature on the melting point of a liquid?

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains constant
D. It fluctuates

64. Which of the following is not a phase change of matter?

A. Evaporation
B. Condensation
C. Sublimation
D. Solidification

65. At what temperature do most liquids boil at standard atmospheric pressure?

A.. 0°C
B. 100°C
C. 473 K
D. 373 K

66. Which of the following is true about the boiling point of water?

A. It increases with increasing pressure
B. It decreases with increasing pressure
C. It remains constant with increasing pressure
D. It fluctuates with increasing pressure

67. Which of the following is an example of sublimation?

A. Ice melting to form water
B. Water boiling to form steam
C. Dry ice (solid CO2)
D. Gasoline evaporating

68. What is the effect of adding solutes to a liquid on its boiling point?

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains constant
D. It fluctuates

69. What is the effect of increasing temperature on the viscosity of liquids?

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains constant
D. It fluctuates

MCQs on Allotropy and Allotropic forms of Carbon 

70. What is allotropy?

A. The existence of an element in more than one crystalline form
B. The existence of an element in more than one liquid form
C. The existence of an element in more than one gaseous form
D. The existence of an element in more than one solid form

71. What are the different forms of Sulphur called?

A. Rhombic Sulphur and Monoclinic Sulphur
B. Cubic Sulphur and Tetragonal Sulphur
C. Amorphous Sulphur and Crystalline Sulphur
D. Orthorhombic Sulphur and Triclinic Sulphur

72. What is the temperature at which two allotropic forms of Sulphur are in equilibrium?

A. 50.5°C
B. 75.5°C
C. 95.5°C
D. 120.5°C

73. Which form of Carbon exists in three allotropic forms?

A. Non-crystalline form
B. Amorphous form
C. Crystalline form
D. Both A and B

74. Which form of Carbon is amorphous?

A. Diamond
B. Graphite
C. Coal
D. Buckyballs

75. What is the other name for Buckyballs?

A. Fullerenes
B. Nanotubes
C. Nanosheets
D. Nanowires

76. Which form of Carbon is used in pencil leads?

A. Diamond
B. Graphite
C. Buckyballs
D. Coal

77. How many covalent bonds does each Carbon atom have in a diamond?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

78. What is the shape of the arrangement of Carbon atoms in a diamond?

A. Hexagonal
B. Square
C. Octagonal
D. Cubic

79. Why are diamonds bad conductors of electricity?

A. Due to weak covalent bonds
B. Due to strong attractive forces
C. Due to the tightness of bonds
D. Due to the shape of the arrangement of Carbon atoms

80. In what arrangement are Carbon atoms arranged in graphite?

A. Tetrahedral
B. Hexagonal
C. Cubic
D. Octagonal

81. What property of graphite makes it a good conductor of electricity?

A. Strong attractive forces
B. Weak covalent bonds
C. Shape of the Carbon atoms
D. Density

82. What is the shape of the arrangement of Carbon atoms in Buckyballs?

A. Tetrahedral
B. Hexagonal
C. Cubic
D. Cage-like structures

83. When were Buckyballs discovered?

A. 1980
B. 1985
C. 1990
D. 1995

Answers

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. C 16. A. 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. B  24. D 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C 36. B 37. B  38. C 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. A 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. C 56. B 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. B 64. D 65. B  66. A 67. C 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. C 73. C 74. C 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. D 79. C 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. B

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